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"...if anyone makes the assistance of grace depend on the humility or obedience of man and does not agree that it is a gift of grace itself that we are obedient and humble, he contradicts the Apostle who says, "What have you that you did not receive?" (1 Cor. 4:7), and, "But by the grace of God I am what I am" (1 Cor. 15:10). (Council of Orange: Canon 6)

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    We are a community of confessing believers who love the gospel of Jesus Christ, affirm the Biblical and Christ-exalting truths of the Reformation such as the five solas, the doctrines of grace, monergistic regeneration, and the redemptive historical approach to interpreting the Scriptures.

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  • « Conference on Adoption in Portland, OR | Main | Jesus Died For the Children of God who are Scattered Abroad. »

    Why Did Jesus Need to Be Baptized?

    Question? My Christian brothers and sisters I have a question for you, why was Jesus baptized? I just want to see what you guys think. Thanks

    Answer: "To fulfill all righteousness" - which is his own answer. In other words, while Jesus is eternal God in essence, he needed to fulfill the law from our side as a human being so as to fully represent us. Christ’s full obedience to all the prescriptions of the divine law made available a perfect righteousness before the law that is imputed or reckoned to those who put their trust in him. This is often called the active obedience of Christ. The passive obedience, on the other hand is His willing obedience in bearing all the sanctions imposed by that law against his people because of their transgression which is the ground of God’s justification of sinners (Rom. 5:9).

    Posted by John on February 4, 2011 03:06 PM

    Comments

    Jesus’s answer, "To fulfill all righteousness," has two meanings; first, as the second Adam and the head of the new covenant, He fulfilled the requirement of the covenant of works. Second, as the true Israelite, He fulfilled the requirement of the law as prescribed in the Mosaic covenant. (Baptism is a sign and seal of the new covenant)

    One of the reasons John baptisted Jesus is that John being a levitical priest was the one ordained to consectrate Jesus into the New Priesthood. John became the last trully functioning Levitical priest. Jesus being the last lamb sacrificed. Jesus arose in a new priestly office, after the order of Melchisedec

    @Hsing & Tony

    Both excellent answers

    If it is true that "He fulfilled the requirement of the covenant of works" then what is the reason for this statement? "It is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God's sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous." Rom. 2:13

    Theodore,

    Good question. Do not read the verse in isolation but consider that the context of Romans 2 is right in the middle of a long exposition where Paul is proving the sinfulness of both the Jews and Gentiles. not proving their ability to keep the law. 3:9What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God...." 3:19Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.20Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.:

    The purpose of the divine legislation is not to show what we are able to do but to reveal that we are unable.

    Jesus Christ IS the one who obeys the law and is therefore righteous before God as a human being.

    Rom 8:3 proves this when it says:

    For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

    4That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

    The righteous requirement of the law is met in us because Christ met it and we have been united to Him.

    Hope this helps
    John

    See this article by Joshua Martin

    Romans 2:13 and the Covenant of Works
    http://discoveredeemer.com/?p=223

    Here is another similar essay
    Do Believers “Receive Eternal Life According to Their Works”?

    http://www.monergism.com/works02.html

    Than you, John; fine answer. I liked your inclusion of the terms "active" and "passive" obedience. Yes... so in short, why was He baptized? So as enable Him to truly stand in our place; to live the life we were supposed to live, but that had become impossible for us. He was living *our* lives then, in an important and real sense.

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