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"...if anyone makes the assistance of grace depend on the humility or obedience of man and does not agree that it is a gift of grace itself that we are obedient and humble, he contradicts the Apostle who says, "What have you that you did not receive?" (1 Cor. 4:7), and, "But by the grace of God I am what I am" (1 Cor. 15:10). (Council of Orange: Canon 6)

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    We are a community of confessing believers who love the gospel of Jesus Christ, affirm the Biblical and Christ-exalting truths of the Reformation such as the five solas, the doctrines of grace, monergistic regeneration, and the redemptive historical approach to interpreting the Scriptures.

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  • « The word of God has not failed | Main | Discussing Reformed Theology »

    John 1:1

    Question: I am a Christian but have a Jehovah’s Witness friend who does not believe in the Divinity of Christ. He is seeking to convince me that my Bible is incorrectly translated at John 1:1. My Bible renders the final phrase “and the word was God” and his “New World Translation” says “and the word was a god.” He contends that the Greek phrase “kai theos en ho logos” lacks the definite article “ho” in front of the word theos and therefore the indefinite article “a” must be supplied. What do you say about this?

    I seek to provide an answer here. - JS

    Posted by John Samson on October 11, 2011 03:16 AM

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